One of the questions that I’ve wrestled with for some time is that of when the two become one. Why? Because how does that work– does the sex act itself mean that a person has become one with the other person. You would think that it does since the Bible clearly states:
What? know ye not that he which is joined to an harlot is one body? for two, saith he, shall be one flesh.
And yet, how does that work with someone that is married?
Margaret argued from the law that it was the father of a daughter that actually controlled the binding of two into one:
Can a Father “allow” his daughter to marry a man that is NOT a virgin? Does that Father have the authority to give his daughter away to such a man? If that man has not done God’s judgment with the previous woman/women will God BIND the Father’s virgin daughter to this non-virgin man? Can one just sweep premarital sex under the carpet and move on? What does the Law of God say about these things? Is God’s Law INCOMPLETE on these issues, or is there a Law that covers ALL aspects and side issues of premarital sex? Isn’t it true that a young man, who refuses to do God’s judgment regarding his own premarital sex with other women, is committing adultery to try and bypass the judgment and marry someone else, though a virgin woman? Can this young man make God’s judgment (Law) of no effect by just IGNORING it? Ezekiel 5:6-17 answers these questions.
She had a long discussion with me on this topic back on a post talking about a father giving away the bride.
For me, I’m still unsettled. I can’t discard the Corinthians passage, but I see what Margaret is trying to say.
What are your thoughts on this topic?